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In the proof of (\sqrt{3}), why can we not directly say (q) is divisible by (3) from (p^2=3q^2)?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: Because first (p) must be proved divisible by (3) and (p=3k) must be substituted

Step 1: From (p^2=3q^2), first (p^2) and then (p) are found divisible by (3). Step 2: Only after substituting (p=3k) do we get (q^2=3k^2). Step 3: Keeping the order correct makes the proof strong.

Related tags

Sqrt3 ProofProof OrderClass 10Proof Of Irrationality Of √2√3√5Proof Of Irrationality Of 2 3 5Real NumbersMathematicsClass 10 Mcq

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