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Is (\frac{x^2}{5}-\frac{3x}{2}+1) a polynomial in (x)?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: Yes, because the variable powers are (2), (1), and (0)

Fractions in the coefficients are allowed in a polynomial. The definition does not require every coefficient to be an integer. Instead, it requires the powers of the variable to be non-negative integers, and it permits addition or subtraction between valid terms. Thus the signs and the number of terms do not determine whether an expression is a polynomial.

Write the expression as \\(\frac{1}{5}x^2-\frac{3}{2}x+1\\). The powers of x are 2, 1, and 0. Each is a non-negative integer, while \\(\frac{1}{5}\\) and \\(-\frac{3}{2}\\) are simply coefficients. Therefore the expression is a polynomial in x, and option B is correct. Neither subtraction nor having three terms makes it invalid.

Related tags

PolynomialFraction CoefficientsDefinition

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