यदि (m,n) दोनों सम हैं, तो \(\frac{m}{n}\) को घटाने योग्य क्यों माना जाएगा?
If both (m,n) are even, why is \(\frac{m}{n}\) considered reducible?
Explanation opens after your attempt
Correct Answer
A. क्योंकि दोनों (2) से विभाज्य हैंBecause both are divisible by (2)
Concept
Both have common factor (2). So numerator and denominator can be divided by (2).
Why this answer is correct
The correct answer is A. क्योंकि दोनों (2) से विभाज्य हैं / Because both are divisible by (2). Both have common factor (2). So numerator and denominator can be divided by (2).
Exam Tip
दोनों में (2) सामान्य गुणनखंड है। इसलिए अंश और हर को (2) से भाग दिया जा सकता है।
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