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A student claims that if \(3p^2=q^2\), then \(p\) must be divisible by 3. What is the correct evaluation of the claim?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: The claim is correct because if \(q^2\) is divisible by 3, then \(q\) is divisible by 3, and hence \(p\) is also divisible by 3.

From \(3p^2=q^2\), \(q^2\) is divisible by 3, so \(q=3r\). Substituting gives \(3p^2=9r^2\), hence \(p^2=3r^2\); therefore, \(p\) is divisible by 3. Exam tip: if a prime divides a square, it divides the number itself.

Related tags

Number SystemsIrrationality ProofSquare Root 3DivisibilityContradiction ProofClass 9 MathematicsProof Of Irrationality Of Square Root 2 And Square Root 3Mathematics

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