यदि \(f:A\to B\) और \(g:B\to C\) फलन हैं तथा \(g\circ f\) एकैकी है, तो कौन सा निष्कर्ष निश्चित रूप से सही है?
If \(f:A\to B\) and \(g:B\to C\) are functions and \(g\circ f\) is one-one, which conclusion is definitely true?
Explanation opens after your attempt
A. (f) एकैकी है(f) is one-one
Concept
Suppose (f\(a_1\)=f\(a_2\)).
Why this answer is correct
Then (g(f\(a_1\))=g(f\(a_2\))), so (\(g\circ f\)\(a_1\)=\(g\circ f\)\(a_2\)).
Exam Tip
Since \(g\circ f\) is one-one, \(a_1=a_2\); therefore (f) is one-one. चरण 1: मान लें (f\(a_1\)=f\(a_2\))। चरण 2: तब (g(f\(a_1\))=g(f\(a_2\))), अर्थात (\(g\circ f\)\(a_1\)=\(g\circ f\)\(a_2\))। चरण 3: क्योंकि \(g\circ f\) एकैकी है, इसलिए \(a_1=a_2\); अतः (f) एकैकी है।
Login to save your score, XP, coins and progress.
