यदि \(f:A\to B\) और \(g:B\to C\) दोनों एकैकी फलन हैं, तो \(g\circ f\) के बारे में सही कथन कौन सा है?
If \(f:A\to B\) and \(g:B\to C\) are both one-one functions, which statement about \(g\circ f\) is correct?
Explanation opens after your attempt
A. \(g\circ f\) एकैकी होगा\(g\circ f\) will be one-one
Concept
Suppose (\(g\circ f\)\(a_1\)=\(g\circ f\)\(a_2\)).
Why this answer is correct
Then (g(f\(a_1\))=g(f\(a_2\))); since (g) is one-one, (f\(a_1\)=f\(a_2\)), and since (f) is one-one, \(a_1=a_2\).
Exam Tip
The composition of two one-one functions is always one-one. चरण 1: मान लें (\(g\circ f\)\(a_1\)=\(g\circ f\)\(a_2\))। चरण 2: (g(f\(a_1\))=g(f\(a_2\))), और (g) एकैकी है, इसलिए (f\(a_1\)=f\(a_2\)); फिर (f) एकैकी होने से \(a_1=a_2\)। चरण 3: दो एकैकी फलनों का संयोजन हमेशा एकैकी होता है।
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