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For (f:\mathbb{R}\to(-\infty,3)), (f(x)=3-x^2), which statement is correct?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: This function is not well-defined for this codomain

Step 1: At (x=0), (f(0)=3). Step 2: But (3) is not in the given codomain ((-\infty,3)), so the function is not well-defined for this codomain. Step 3: Before onto checking, verify that every output lies in the codomain.

Related tags

Onto FunctionWell DefinedCodomainQuadraticRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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