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If (f:\mathbb{R}\to[0,\infty)), (f(x)=e^x), is (f) onto?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: No, because (0) is in the codomain but is not obtained

Step 1: (e^x>0) for all real (x). Step 2: (0) is in ([0,\infty)), but there is no (x) such that (e^x=0). Step 3: A closed endpoint in the codomain can change onto status.

Related tags

Onto FunctionExponentialCodomainEndpointRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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