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If (A={1,2,3}), (B={p,q,r,s}), can there be an onto function from (A) to (B)?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: No because the domain has fewer elements than the codomain

Step 1: In an onto function, every codomain element must be hit at least once. Step 2: (A) has only (3) elements, while (B) has (4) elements. Step 3: For finite sets, the domain size cannot be less than the codomain size for an onto function.

Related tags

Onto FunctionFinite SetCountingCodomainRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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