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For (f:(0,\infty)\to(0,\infty)), (f(x)=\ln x), which conclusion is correct?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: It is not onto

Step 1: (\ln x) takes negative, zero, and positive real values. Step 2: Although every positive (y) has (x=e^y), many outputs of (\ln x) are outside ((0,\infty)). Step 3: A function (A\to B) must have every output inside (B), so with this codomain it is not a valid function into (B).

Related tags

Onto FunctionLogarithmCodomain ValidityClass 12Relations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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