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If (f:\mathbb{R}\to[-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}]), (f(x)=\tan^{-1}x), why is (f) not onto?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: Because (-\frac{\pi}{2}) and (\frac{\pi}{2}) are not obtained

Step 1: The range of (\tan^{-1}x) is the open interval ((-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2})). Step 2: The codomain includes both endpoint values, but the function never attains them. Step 3: The difference between open and closed endpoints is very important in onto questions.

Related tags

Inverse TrigonometryNot OntoEndpointsCodomainOnto FunctionRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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