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If (f:(0,\infty)\to(0,\infty)), (f(x)=\ln x), why will (f) not be considered onto?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: Because negative function values are not in the codomain, so it is not properly a function into this codomain

Step 1: For (0<x<1), (\ln x<0). Step 2: The codomain is ((0,\infty)), which does not contain negative values, so the given mapping is not properly a function into this codomain. Step 3: Before testing onto nature, check whether the function is well-defined.

Related tags

Logarithmic FunctionWell DefinedCodomainOnto ConceptOnto FunctionRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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