यदि \(f:{0,1,2,3}\to{0,1,2,3}\) को (f(x)=x-2-2x+1) से दिया जाए, तो क्या (f) वैध फलन है?
If \(f:{0,1,2,3}\to{0,1,2,3}\) is given by (f(x)=x-2-2x+1), is (f) a valid function?
Explanation opens after your attempt
Correct Answer
B. नहीं, क्योंकि \(f(3)=4\notin{0,1,2,3}\)No, because \(f(3)=4\notin{0,1,2,3}\)
Concept
Here (f(3)=9-6+1=4), which is not in the codomain. For a finite domain, match every value with the codomain.
Why this answer is correct
The correct answer is B. नहीं, क्योंकि \(f(3)=4\notin{0,1,2,3}\) / No, because \(f(3)=4\notin{0,1,2,3}\). Here (f(3)=9-6+1=4), which is not in the codomain. For a finite domain, match every value with the codomain.
Exam Tip
(f(3)=9-6+1=4) है, जो सहप्रांत में नहीं है। सीमित प्रांत में हर मान को सहप्रांत से मिलाएं।
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