यदि \(f:A\to B\) और \(g:B\to C\) दोनों एक-एक हैं, तो \(g\circ f\) के बारे में सही कथन क्या है?
If \(f:A\to B\) and \(g:B\to C\) are both one-one, what is the correct statement about \(g\circ f\)?
Explanation opens after your attempt
A. \(g\circ f\) एक-एक है\(g\circ f\) is one-one
Concept
मान लें (\(g\circ f\)\(x_1\)=\(g\circ f\)\(x_2\))। / Assume (\(g\circ f\)\(x_1\)=\(g\circ f\)\(x_2\)).
Why this answer is correct
(g) एक-एक है, इसलिए (f\(x_1\)=f\(x_2\)), और (f) एक-एक है, इसलिए \(x_1=x_2\)। / Since (g) is one-one, (f\(x_1\)=f\(x_2\)), and since (f) is one-one, \(x_1=x_2\).
Exam Tip
दो एक-एक फलनों का संयोजन भी एक-एक होता है। / The composition of two one-one functions is one-one.
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