यदि \(f:{1,2,3}\to{1,2,3}\) को (f(x)=x+1) से परिभाषित किया जाए, तो यह (A) से (B) में फलन क्यों नहीं है?
If \(f:{1,2,3}\to{1,2,3}\) is defined by (f(x)=x+1), why is it not a function from (A) to (B)?
Explanation opens after your attempt
Correct Answer
A. क्योंकि (f(3)=4) और \(4\notin{1,2,3}\)Because (f(3)=4) and \(4\notin{1,2,3}\)
Concept
The image of (3) is (4), which is not in the codomain. In exams, check whether every output lies in the codomain.
Why this answer is correct
The correct answer is A. क्योंकि (f(3)=4) और \(4\notin{1,2,3}\) / Because (f(3)=4) and \(4\notin{1,2,3}\). The image of (3) is (4), which is not in the codomain. In exams, check whether every output lies in the codomain.
Exam Tip
(3) की छवि (4) आती है जो सहप्रांत में नहीं है। परीक्षा में हर आउटपुट सहप्रांत में है या नहीं जांचें।
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