यदि \(f:{1,2,3,4}\to{1,2}\) को (f(x)=1) जब \(x\le 2\) और (f(x)=2) जब (x>2) से परिभाषित किया गया है, तो (f(2)) क्या है?
If \(f:{1,2,3,4}\to{1,2}\) is defined by (f(x)=1) when \(x\le 2\) and (f(x)=2) when (x>2), what is (f(2))?
Explanation opens after your attempt
Correct Answer
A. (1)
Concept
Because \(2\le 2\), (f(2)=1). In exams, watch the difference between \(\le\) and (<).
Why this answer is correct
The correct answer is A. (1). Because \(2\le 2\), (f(2)=1). In exams, watch the difference between \(\le\) and (<).
Exam Tip
क्योंकि \(2\le 2\), इसलिए (f(2)=1) है। परीक्षा में \(\le\) और (<) के अंतर को ध्यान से देखें।
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