यदि \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) को (f(x)=\frac{1}{x-2}) से परिभाषित किया जाए, तो यह पूरे \(\mathbb{R}\) पर फलन क्यों नहीं है?
If \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) is defined by (f(x)=\frac{1}{x-2}), why is it not a function on all of \(\mathbb{R}\)?
Explanation opens after your attempt
Correct Answer
A. क्योंकि (x=2) पर हर (0) हो जाता हैBecause the denominator becomes (0) at (x=2)
Concept
(x=2) is in the domain but (f(2)) is not defined. In exams, find values that make the denominator zero.
Why this answer is correct
The correct answer is A. क्योंकि (x=2) पर हर (0) हो जाता है / Because the denominator becomes (0) at (x=2). (x=2) is in the domain but (f(2)) is not defined. In exams, find values that make the denominator zero.
Exam Tip
(x=2) प्रांत में है पर (f(2)) परिभाषित नहीं है। परीक्षा में हर भिन्न में हर शून्य करने वाले मान खोजें।
Login to save your score, XP, coins and progress.