यदि \(f:{1,2,3}\to{1,2,3,4,5}\) by (f(x)=x-2), तो क्या (f) valid function है?
If \(f:{1,2,3}\to{1,2,3,4,5}\) by (f(x)=x-2), is (f) a valid function?
Explanation opens after your attempt
A. नहीं, क्योंकि \(f(3)=9\notin{1,2,3,4,5}\)No, because \(f(3)=9\notin{1,2,3,4,5}\)
Concept
The output is unique, but (f(3)=9) is not in the codomain. For a function, every image must also lie in the codomain.
Why this answer is correct
The correct answer is A. नहीं, क्योंकि \(f(3)=9\notin{1,2,3,4,5}\) / No, because \(f(3)=9\notin{1,2,3,4,5}\). The output is unique, but (f(3)=9) is not in the codomain. For a function, every image must also lie in the codomain.
Exam Tip
output unique तो है, लेकिन (f(3)=9) codomain में नहीं है। function के लिए image codomain के अंदर भी होनी चाहिए।
Login to save your score, XP, coins and progress.
