यदि \(f:A\to B\) है और (f(a)=f(b)) for \(a\ne b\), तो इससे क्या निष्कर्ष निकलता है?
If \(f:A\to B\) and (f(a)=f(b)) for \(a\ne b\), what conclusion follows?
Explanation opens after your attempt
A. (f) फिर भी function हो सकता है(f) may still be a function
Concept
Two different inputs having the same image does not violate the function rule. Violation occurs when one input has two different images.
Why this answer is correct
The correct answer is A. (f) फिर भी function हो सकता है / (f) may still be a function. Two different inputs having the same image does not violate the function rule. Violation occurs when one input has two different images.
Exam Tip
दो अलग inputs की same image होना function rule का violation नहीं है। violation तभी होता है जब एक input की दो अलग images हों।
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