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If (f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}), (f(x)=2x+1) and (g:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}), (g(x)=x^2), is (g\circ f) one-one?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: Not one-one

Step 1: ((g\circ f)(x)=(2x+1)^2). Step 2: At (x=0) and (x=-1), the output is (1) both times. Step 3: The outer function (x^2) is not one-one on the whole real domain, so this composition is also not one-one here.

Related tags

One-One FunctionCompositionCounterexampleOne One FunctionRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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