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If (f:\mathbb{R}\setminus{2}\to\mathbb{R}), (f(x)=\frac{x^2-4}{x-2}), what is the correct conclusion about the one-one nature of (f)?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: It is one-one

Step 1: For (x\neq 2), (\frac{x^2-4}{x-2}=x+2). Step 2: In (x+2), the coefficient of (x) is non-zero, so equal images give equal inputs. Step 3: While simplifying, keep the removed point outside the domain.

Related tags

One-One-FunctionRational-SimplificationInjectiveDomainOne One FunctionRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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