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If (f:{a,b,c}\to{1,2,3,4}) has (f(a)=2), (f(b)=2), (f(c)=4), why is (f) not one-one?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: Because (a\neq b) but (f(a)=f(b))

Step 1: (a) and (b) are different elements. Step 2: Both have output (2), so the same output is repeated. Step 3: Such repetition is not allowed in one-one property.

Related tags

One-One FunctionFinite MappingNon InjectiveClass 12One One FunctionRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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