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If (f:{1,2,3,4}\to{a,b,c}) is one-one, is it possible?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: Not possible

Step 1: The domain has (4) elements and the codomain has only (3) elements. Step 2: A one-one function needs a different output for every input, which is not enough here. Step 3: For finite sets, if the domain has more elements, a one-one function is not possible.

Related tags

One-One FunctionFinite SetsCountingClass 12One One FunctionRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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