यदि \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) और \(g:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) दोनों एकैकी हैं, तो \(g\circ f\) के बारे में सही कथन कौन सा है?
If \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) and \(g:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) are both one-one, which statement about \(g\circ f\) is correct?
Explanation opens after your attempt
A. यह हमेशा एकैकी हैIt is always one-one
Concept
मान लें (\(g\circ f\)\(x_1\)=\(g\circ f\)\(x_2\))। / Suppose (\(g\circ f\)\(x_1\)=\(g\circ f\)\(x_2\)).
Why this answer is correct
(g) एकैकी है, इसलिए (f\(x_1\)=f\(x_2\)); फिर (f) एकैकी है, इसलिए \(x_1=x_2\)। / Since (g) is one-one, (f\(x_1\)=f\(x_2\)); since (f) is one-one, \(x_1=x_2\).
Exam Tip
एकैकी फलनों का संयोजन फिर एकैकी होता है। / The composition of one-one functions is one-one.
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