यदि \(f:{1,2,3,4}\to{0,1,2}\) को (f(x)=x-2) से परिभाषित किया जाए, तो यह फलन क्यों नहीं है?
If \(f:{1,2,3,4}\to{0,1,2}\) is defined by (f(x)=x-2), why is it not a function?
Explanation opens after your attempt
Correct Answer
A. क्योंकि (f(1)=-1) है और \(-1\notin{0,1,2}\)Because (f(1)=-1) and \(-1\notin{0,1,2}\)
Concept
(f(1)=-1) is not in codomain (B), so it is not a function from (A) to (B). In exams, every output must lie in the codomain.
Why this answer is correct
The correct answer is A. क्योंकि (f(1)=-1) है और \(-1\notin{0,1,2}\) / Because (f(1)=-1) and \(-1\notin{0,1,2}\). (f(1)=-1) is not in codomain (B), so it is not a function from (A) to (B). In exams, every output must lie in the codomain.
Exam Tip
(f(1)=-1) सहप्रांत (B) में नहीं है, इसलिए यह (A) से (B) में फलन नहीं होगा। परीक्षा में आउटपुट सहप्रांत में होना चाहिए।
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