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If f(x)=x^2+2x+2 and g(x)=x+1, what is the domain of (f/g)(x)?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: R\{-1}

The governing domain rule for a quotient of functions is that both functions must be defined and the denominator must not be zero. Both f(x)=x^2+2x+2 and g(x)=x+1 are polynomials, so each is defined for every real x. However, (f/g)(x) is undefined when g(x)=0. Solving x+1=0 gives x=-1, so every real number except -1 belongs to the domain. The numerator does not create a restriction; even if it happened to be zero at some point, a zero numerator would be allowed as long as the denominator were nonzero. Option B incorrectly includes the point -1, option C imposes an unrelated restriction, and option D excludes the wrong value. Therefore option A is correct.

Related tags

Relations-FunctionsQuotient-DomainPolynomial-FunctionsReal Valued FunctionsTheir Domain And RangeReal Valued Functions Their Domain And RangeRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 11 Mcq

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