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If \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}\) is defined by \(f(x)=\begin{cases}x+2,&x<0\\x^2,&x>0\end{cases}\), why is it not a function from \(\mathbb{R}\) to \(\mathbb{R}\)?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: Because no value is assigned at \(x=0\)

A function from \(\mathbb{R}\) to \(\mathbb{R}\) must assign exactly one real output to every real input. The given rule covers only \(x<0\) and \(x>0\), so no value is assigned when \(x=0\). Hence its domain is not all of \(\mathbb{R}\). At \(x=1\), only \(1^2=1\) is applicable, and at \(x=-1\), the value is \((-1)+2=1\); therefore options B and C are incorrect. Exam tip: To test whether a relation is a function, check that every input in the stated domain has exactly one output.

Related tags

Piecewise FunctionDomainRelations And FunctionsFunction DefinitionReal Valued FunctionsTheir Domain And RangeReal Valued Functions Their Domain And RangeMathematicsClass 11 Mcq

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