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If (f(x)=\frac{1}{x}) and (g(x)=\frac{1}{x^2}), what is the nature of ((fg)(x))?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: Odd function

The direct answer is option A: odd function. Multiply the functions: \((fg)(x)=f(x)g(x)=\frac1x\cdot\frac1{x^2}=\frac1{x^3}\), with domain \(\mathbb{R}\setminus\{0\}\). A function is odd when \(h(-x)=-h(x)\) for every allowed \(x\). Let \(h(x)=1/x^3\). Then \(h(-x)=1/(-x)^3=-1/x^3=-h(x)\), so it is odd. Option A is correct. Option B is wrong because an even function would satisfy \(h(-x)=h(x)\); that does not happen here. Option C is wrong because the sign does change and the oddness condition is satisfied. Option D is wrong because \(1/x^3\) changes with \(x\), so it is not constant. The domain is symmetric about zero, which is necessary for discussing evenness or oddness, and zero itself is simply excluded. Memory cue: an odd power in the denominator gives a sign change when \(x\) becomes \(-x\).

Related tags

Relations-FunctionsAlgebra-Real-FunctionsProduct-FunctionsParity

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