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For valid (x), can (\frac{1}{x},\frac{1}{x+1},\frac{1}{x+2}) form an AP?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: No, there is no valid (x)

The middle-term condition gives (x(x+2)=(x+1)^2), which is impossible. In exams, check validity after forming the equation.

Related tags

ApReciprocal TermsNot ApIntroduction To Aps And Common Difference.Introduction To Aps And Common DifferenceArithmetic Progressions (Ap)Arithmetic Progressions ApMathematics

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