Reserves

Investment loss is ₹45000 so distributable balance is ₹36000. Second partner share is ₹36000 × 2/9 = ₹8000.

Capital Reserve is credited, whereas Preliminary Expenses are debited when written off. Therefore, the net adjustment is ₹72,000 − ₹27,000 = ₹45,000. The second partner’s share is 4/9, so the amount credited is ₹45,000 × 4/9 = ₹20,000. The ₹25,000 option results from using an incorrect proportion instead of 4:9. Exam tip: First calculate the net reserve adjustment, then distribute it among the old partners in their profit-sharing ratio.

General Reserve is profit before admission. If it is not distributed the new partner may get linked with old profit.

The credit balance of ₹120000 in the Profit and Loss Account represents accumulated profit, while the ₹50000 debit balance in Advertisement Suspense represents an accumulated loss or un written-off expense. Thus, the net accumulated profit is ₹120000 − ₹50000 = ₹70000. B’s share is 5/(2+5+3) = 5/10, so B’s account is credited with ₹70000 × 5/10 = ₹35000. Exam tip: add credit balances, deduct debit balances, and distribute the net amount in the old profit-sharing ratio.

The excess reserve is ₹1,50,000 − ₹66,000 = ₹84,000. This amount is credited to the old partners in their old ratio of 4:3:2. Therefore, the third partner’s share is \(₹84,000 \times \frac{2}{9} = ₹18,666.67\), which is ₹18,667 when rounded to the nearest rupee. ₹84,000 is the total excess reserve, while ₹28,000 is the second partner’s share. Exam tip: When a reserve has an associated claim, deduct the claim first and distribute only the balance in the old ratio.

The excess of actual bad debts over the reserve is ₹73,000 − ₹55,000 = ₹18,000. This excess loss is borne by the old partners in their profit-sharing ratio of 6:3. The first partner’s share is ₹18,000 × 6/9 = ₹12,000. Therefore, ₹12,000 will be additionally debited to the first partner’s Capital Account. Exam tip: When actual bad debts exceed the reserve, distribute only the excess among the old partners in their old profit-sharing ratio.

Under fixed capital method capital accounts remain fixed and adjustments go to current accounts. So net profit is credited to old current accounts.

Profit and Loss debit balance is accumulated loss. In fluctuating capital it is debited directly to old capital accounts.

The probable liability exceeds the reserve by ₹24,000 (₹1,54,000 − ₹1,30,000). This excess is borne by the old partners in their 5:7 ratio. The second partner’s share is ₹24,000 × 7/12 = ₹14,000, so option A is correct.

The Investment Fluctuation Reserve of ₹54,000 and the revaluation gain of ₹27,000 are both credited to the old partners. Thus, the total amount to be distributed is ₹81,000. The first partner’s share is \(2/3 \times ₹81,000 = ₹54,000\). Option B considers only the reserve and ignores the gain on revaluation. Exam tip: When the Investment Fluctuation Reserve is not required to cover a loss, it is distributed among the old partners in their old profit-sharing ratio.

Both the credit balance of the Profit and Loss Account and the General Reserve are distributed among the old partners in their old profit-sharing ratio. Total amount = ₹88,000 + ₹44,000 = ₹1,32,000. The second partner’s share is ₹1,32,000 × 5/11 = ₹60,000, so option A is correct. ₹1,32,000 is the total accumulated amount, not the share of one partner. Exam tip: On admission, accumulated profits and reserves are distributed in the old partners’ old ratio, not in the new ratio.

Employees Provident Fund is liability towards employees. Only General Reserve is distributed among old partners like accumulated profit.

General Reserve is part of old profit. It should be distributed only among old partners in old profit ratio.

Known bad debts are first deducted from the reserve. Remaining ₹42000 is distributed among old partners in old ratio.

C’s share of the General Reserve is ₹60,000 × 4/12 = ₹20,000 credit. C’s share of the debit balance of the Profit and Loss Account is ₹1,08,000 × 4/12 = ₹36,000 debit. Therefore, the net effect is ₹36,000 debit − ₹20,000 credit = ₹16,000 debit. ₹20,000 credit represents only the reserve adjustment, while ₹36,000 debit represents only the accumulated loss adjustment. Exam tip: Credit old partners with reserves and debit them with accumulated losses in the old profit-sharing ratio.

Distributable amount is ₹96000 - ₹42000 = ₹54000. First partner share is ₹54000 × 8/12 = ₹36000.

Total distributable amount is ₹108000 + ₹36000 - ₹24000 = ₹120000. Second partner share is ₹120000 × 5/12 = ₹50000.

The accumulated loss is adjusted against the General Reserve, leaving a net amount of ₹1,00,000 (₹1,50,000 − ₹50,000). C’s share is 5/10 of the 4:1:5 ratio, so the amount credited is ₹1,00,000 × 5/10 = ₹50,000. ₹75,000 is incorrect because it represents half of the original reserve and ignores the accumulated loss adjustment. Exam tip: always calculate the net reserve balance before distributing it among partners.

There is no claim so the reserve is free accumulated profit. First partner share is ₹63000 × 5/9 = ₹35000.

Reserve is created from old profit so it is distributed in old ratio. New ratio is used for future profits.

A special reserve is first adjusted against the related claim. Only the balance is distributed among old partners.

The investment loss of ₹30,000 is first adjusted against the Investment Fluctuation Reserve. Thus, the remaining reserve is ₹1,20,000 − ₹30,000 = ₹90,000. The total old ratio is 4 + 5 + 6 = 15, so B’s share is ₹90,000 × 5/15 = ₹30,000. ₹90,000 is the entire balance available for distribution, not B’s individual share. Exam tip: Adjust the loss against the reserve first, then distribute the balance in the old profit-sharing ratio.

General Reserve is accumulated profit but Employees Provident Fund is outside liability. Therefore only ₹74000 is distributed.

The reserve has a credit balance of ₹1,10,000, while the debit balance of the Profit and Loss Account must be deducted from it. Thus, the net amount is ₹1,10,000 − ₹40,000 = ₹70,000. A’s share is ₹70,000 × 7/10 = ₹49,000. ₹70,000 is the total net amount, not A’s individual share. Exam tip: Deduct any debit balance before distributing the net reserve among the old partners.

The distributable surplus is obtained after providing for the actual liability: ₹96,000 − ₹36,000 = ₹60,000. This surplus is distributed in the old ratio 3:5:4, whose total is 12. Therefore, B’s share is ₹60,000 × 5/12 = ₹25,000. ₹60,000 is the total distributable surplus, not B’s individual share. Exam tip: In reserve adjustments, first deduct the actual liability and then distribute the balance in the old profit-sharing ratio.