Goodwill

Correct answer: A. Old share minus new share

The governing concept is the sacrificing ratio used when a partner gives up part of an existing profit share, commonly during admission or a change in ratio. For each sacrificing partner, the ratio is calculated as Old Share − New Share. For example, if a partner’s old share is 1/2 and the new share is 1/3, the sacrifice is 1/2 − 1/3 = 1/6. This reduction represents the share transferred for the benefit of another partner and is used to distribute goodwill compensation. Hence option A is correct. New Share − Old Share is the gaining-ratio formula when the result is positive for a gaining partner. The other two options concern neither partnership ratio nor goodwill adjustment.

Correct answer: A. \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Sacrifice is calculated by subtracting the new share from the old share: \(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}=\frac{3-2}{6}=\frac{1}{6}\). Therefore, A's sacrifice is \(\frac{1}{6}\). Exam tip: always convert the shares to a common denominator before subtracting them.

Correct answer: A. Gaining ratio

The direct answer is option A: goodwill is adjusted in the gaining ratio. When a partner retires, the remaining partners usually receive a larger share of future profits. For each continuing partner, the gain equals new share minus old share. The ratio of these gains is the gaining ratio, and it shows who benefits from the retirement and in what proportion. The continuing partners therefore bear the goodwill adjustment in that ratio and compensate the retiring partner. Option A is correct. Option B, sacrificing ratio, is normally used when a new partner is admitted and old partners give up part of their shares. Option C, drawings ratio, concerns withdrawals and has no role here. Option D, salary ratio, concerns remuneration and is also irrelevant. Memory cue: admission uses sacrificing ratio; retirement uses gaining ratio.

Correct answer: A. New ratio − old ratio

The gaining ratio shows the proportion in which the remaining partners acquire the share of a retiring or deceased partner. Therefore, it is calculated as new ratio − old ratio. Option B reverses the subtraction and is generally associated with the sacrificing ratio. Exam tip: remember ‘new − old’ for gaining and ‘old − new’ for sacrificing.

Correct answer: A. ₹30000

The direct answer is option A: C will bear ₹30,000. The gaining ratio 2:3 tells us how the goodwill burden is divided between B and C. Total parts are 2 + 3 = 5. C has 3 parts, so C’s share is 3/5 of the retiring partner’s goodwill. Calculation: C’s amount = ₹50,000 × 3/5 = ₹30,000. Option A is therefore correct. Option B, ₹20,000, is 2/5 of the amount and belongs to the partner with two gaining parts, not C. Option C, ₹25,000, divides the goodwill equally, which is not the stated ratio. Option D, ₹50,000, charges the complete goodwill to C and ignores B’s share. The key is to use the gaining ratio, not the old profit-sharing ratio.

Correct answer: A. 3:1

The direct answer is option A: the gaining ratio is 3:1. Initially, A, B and C share 2:3:1, whose total is 6. Thus B’s old share is 3/6 = 1/2 and C’s old share is 1/6. After A retires, B and C share 3:1, whose total is 4. B’s new share is 3/4 and C’s new share is 1/4. B’s gain is 3/4 − 1/2 = 1/4. C’s gain is 1/4 − 1/6 = 1/12. The ratio of gains is 1/4:1/12 = 3:1. Option A is correct. Option B repeats the old ratio and ignores the calculation. Option C reverses the relative gains. Option D wrongly assumes equal gains. The fact that B and C keep the same relative ratio is a quick clue, but comparing old and new fractions gives the exact proof.

Correct answer: A. Deceased partner's capital account

The deceased partner should receive his share of goodwill. Therefore his capital account is credited.

Correct answer: A. Because it is not part of the business’s regular earnings

Goodwill is based on the normal and regular profit-earning capacity of a business. Abnormal income is received only once or irregularly, so it is deducted from profit to determine normal profit. Options B, C and D are incorrect because abnormal income is not necessarily a loan, capital, or partners’ drawings. Exam tip: While calculating normal profit, deduct abnormal income and add abnormal loss.

Correct answer: A. Because it is not a regular expense

Abnormal expense does not show regular earning capacity. So it is added back to find normal profit.

Correct answer: A. ₹190,000

The governing concept is the treatment of abnormal items while determining maintainable profit for goodwill valuation. An abnormal loss is not expected to recur in ordinary operations, so it must be added back to the reported profit of the year in which it was charged. The first year’s adjusted profit is therefore ₹50,000 + ₹10,000 = ₹60,000. The other two profits remain ₹70,000 and ₹60,000. Correct total adjusted profit = ₹60,000 + ₹70,000 + ₹60,000 = ₹190,000, so option A is correct. Simply adding the reported figures gives ₹180,000 and incorrectly leaves the abnormal loss deducted. The other choices involve unrelated or incorrect adjustments.

Correct answer: A. About ₹83333

After deducting abnormal profit the third year profit becomes ₹80000. Total is ₹250000 and average is about ₹83333.

Correct answer: A. It is added back to profit

Maintainable profit represents the profit expected under normal future conditions. An expense that will not recur in the future will not reduce future normal earnings, so it is added back to the current profit while calculating maintainable profit. Therefore, option A is correct. Option B is incorrect because it would reduce the profit unnecessarily. Exam tip: Add back non-recurring expenses that will not continue, but deduct additional expenses expected in the future.

Correct answer: A. It may be added to profit

Expected regular extra income increases earning capacity. So it may be added to adjusted profit.

Correct answer: A. Actual capital used in business

Capital employed means the net funds or assets actually used in carrying on the business. In a simplified balance-sheet approach, it is commonly calculated as total business assets minus external liabilities; appropriate adjustments may be made according to the specific method and facts. In goodwill valuation, capital employed is important because it helps determine normal profit, often through the formula Normal Profit = Capital Employed × Normal Rate of Return ÷ 100. Option A is therefore correct. A partner’s house is not automatically a business asset, a partner’s personal loan is not necessarily firm capital, and monthly salary is an expense or remuneration rather than capital employed. The term refers to business resources, not personal items.

Correct answer: A. Assets minus external liabilities

Direct answer: Option A, assets minus external liabilities. Actual capital means the owner’s or partners’ net investment in the business. First find the total assets, such as cash, stock, machinery and debtors. Then subtract outside liabilities, such as loans, creditors and bills payable. Formula: Actual capital = Assets − External liabilities. Option A is correct because the remaining net assets represent the capital belonging to the owners. Option B, drawings minus sales, mixes a withdrawal with revenue and cannot measure net investment. Option C, loan minus cash, compares only two items and ignores all other assets and liabilities. Option D, expenses plus profit, is related to a profit calculation, not the balance-sheet value of capital. Exam cue: capital is what remains after all outsiders’ claims are removed from assets.

Correct answer: A. ₹650,000

The governing accounting equation is Assets = Capital + External Liabilities. Rearranging it gives actual capital, or net assets, as Assets − External Liabilities. Substituting the figures: Actual Capital = ₹900,000 − ₹250,000 = ₹650,000. Therefore option A is correct. Option B reports total assets without deducting the claims of outsiders, so it is not the owner’s actual capital. Option C is only the amount owed to external parties and represents liabilities, not capital. Option D adds assets and liabilities, whereas capital is the residual interest after liabilities are deducted. This calculation is also relevant to goodwill valuation when actual capital or capital employed is required.

Correct answer: A. There will be no positive goodwill

Goodwill arises when capitalized value is higher than actual capital. If it is lower no positive goodwill is taken.

Correct answer: A. Capitalization method

In capitalization method profit is capitalized at normal rate of return. If the rate is wrong the answer will be wrong.

Correct answer: A. Before calculating average or normal profit

Abnormal gains or losses, such as accidental losses or exceptional income, can distort the normal operating profit. Therefore, they must be adjusted before calculating the average or normal profit used for goodwill valuation. Adjusting them after writing the answer is incorrect because the profit would already have been calculated on a wrong basis. Exam tip: identify and adjust abnormal items before computing average profit.

Correct answer: A. By adjustment through capital accounts

When goodwill is not brought in cash adjustment can be made through capital accounts. Old partners are credited in sacrificing ratio.

Correct answer: A. ₹50,000

In the gaining ratio 5:1, the first partner’s share is \(\frac{5}{6}\). Therefore, the amount borne by the first partner is ₹60,000 × \(\frac{5}{6}\) = ₹50,000. ₹10,000 is the amount attributable to the second partner, so it is the closest distractor. In exams, first add the ratio terms and then calculate the relevant partner’s share.

Correct answer: A. Because unnecessary goodwill can overstate assets

Unnecessary goodwill can overstate assets. Therefore adjustment is often made only through capital accounts.

Correct answer: A. Partner’s personal drawings

Goodwill represents the value of a firm’s favourable reputation and its capacity to earn profits above the normal return. Factors such as a strong reputation, efficient management, loyal customers, product quality, favourable location and stable business relations can increase the expected future earnings and therefore influence goodwill. A partner’s personal drawings are withdrawals of cash or other assets for private use. They reduce the partner’s capital or the firm’s available funds, but they do not ordinarily create or measure the firm’s reputation or earning capacity. Thus option A is the best answer. The other three alternatives are commercially connected with customer retention, efficiency or expected future profits, so they can directly or indirectly affect goodwill.

Correct answer: A. When the firm earns more than normal profit

The governing idea is that goodwill measures the advantage arising from a firm’s favourable reputation, customer relationships and special earning capacity. A firm that earns more than the normal profit earned by comparable businesses possesses some valuable benefit, such as loyal customers, efficient management, superior products or a good location. Goodwill attempts to place a value on that benefit. Therefore option A gives the clearest situation in which goodwill is relevant. Zero sales, loss of all customers and continuous closure indicate absence or deterioration of earning capacity rather than the existence of positive goodwill. They may reduce goodwill to a very low amount or make it worthless, but they do not demonstrate its need as clearly as supernormal profitability does.

Correct answer: A. Given method and required adjustments

Goodwill represents the value of a firm’s reputation and other advantages that help it earn profits above an ordinary level. Its calculation depends on the method specified in the problem, such as average profit, super profit, or capitalization. Therefore, the first useful step is to identify the given method and read all required adjustments carefully.

The method determines the formula, while adjustments determine the profit figure that must be used. For example, an unusual expense, an abnormal loss, or a changed partner’s salary may need correction before average or super profit is found. Merely looking at partners’ names, the order of the options, or a page number gives no accounting basis for calculation. Hence option A is correct because it identifies both the method and the necessary adjustments.