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If f: R → R is given by f(x) = {x + 1 for x ≤ 2; x² for x ≥ 2}, why is it not a function?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: Because at x = 2, two different values, 3 and 4, occur

A piecewise rule defines a function only when every input has one well-defined output. Here the first condition is x ≤ 2, while the second is x ≥ 2. Their domains overlap at x = 2, so both formulas must be applied there. The first formula gives 2 + 1 = 3, whereas the second gives 2² = 4. Thus the same input is assigned two different outputs, violating the uniqueness requirement for a function. Therefore option A is correct. There is no issue at x = 0 or x = 1 because the first formula gives real values, and f(3) = 9 is a valid single output under the second formula. If one condition had been x < 2, the overlap would disappear.

Related tags

Piecewise-FunctionUniquenessOverlapping-DomainsFunctions As A Special Kind Of RelationRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 11 Mcq

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