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Let f:{1,2,3}→{2,3,4}, f(x)=x+1, and g:{1,2,3}→{2,3,4,5}, g(x)=x+1. Are f and g equal functions?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: No, because the codomains are different

Two functions are equal only when their domains, codomains, and corresponding output values are all the same. Equality cannot be decided from the displayed formula alone. Both functions here have the same domain, {1,2,3}, and the same rule, x+1. Their actual values are f(1)=g(1)=2, f(2)=g(2)=3, and f(3)=g(3)=4, so their ranges are both {2,3,4}. Nevertheless, f has codomain {2,3,4}, whereas g has codomain {2,3,4,5}. Since the codomains differ, the functions themselves are different even though the formula and range agree. Therefore option B is correct. Option A overlooks the role of the codomain, option C confuses range with codomain, and option D is false because the domains are identical.

Related tags

Equal FunctionsCodomainRangeFunctionsRelations And FunctionsFunctions As A Special Kind Of RelationMathematicsClass 11 Mcq

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