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If (A={1,2,3}) and (f:A\to A) by (f(x)=4-x), what is (f)?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: valid function with graph ({(1,3),(2,2),(3,1)})

The direct answer is A. For a function from A to A, every input in A must produce exactly one output that is also in A. Calculate step by step: f(1)=4-1=3, f(2)=4-2=2, and f(3)=4-3=1. Thus the graph is {(1,3),(2,2),(3,1)}. Each input has one output, and all outputs 1, 2, and 3 belong to A, so the rule defines a valid function from A to A. Option A is correct. Option B is wrong because f(1)=3 is not a problem; 3 belongs to A and a function may map 1 to 3. Option C is wrong because f(2)=2 is also completely valid; an input may map to itself. Option D is wrong because the relation is not empty: it contains the three calculated ordered pairs. The exam method is to check both conditions: unique output and output remaining inside the stated codomain.

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Finite-FunctionGraphClass11

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