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If (f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}) is defined by (f(x)=\frac{1}{x+3}), why is it not a function on all of (\mathbb{R})?यदि (f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}) को (f(x)=\frac{1}{x+3}) से परिभाषित किया जाए, तो यह पूरे (\mathbb{R}) पर फलन क्यों नहीं है?
Answer and explanationउत्तर और व्याख्या
Correct answer:सही उत्तर: Because the denominator becomes (0) at (x=-3)क्योंकि (x=-3) पर हर (0) हो जाता है
(x=-3) is in the domain but (f(-3)) is not defined. In exams, find values that make the denominator (0).(x=-3) प्रांत में है पर (f(-3)) परिभाषित नहीं है। परीक्षा में भिन्न में हर को (0) बनाने वाले मान खोजें।
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