01 If (r=0), why is (^{n}P_r=^{n}C_r)?
Answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Because an empty selection and an empty arrangement both have count 1
Explanation: When \(r=0\), there is exactly one way to select no object: select nothing. Similarly, there is exactly one way to arrange zero objects. Using the formulas, \(^{n}P_0=\frac{n!}{n!}=1\) and \(^{n}C_0=\frac{n!}{0!n!}=1\), since \(0!=1\). Option D is incorrect because \(^{n}C_0=1\), not n. Exam tip: remember that an empty selection or an empty arrangement has count 1.