यदि (f(x)=\frac{x-2-4}{x+2}) और (g(x)=x-2) हों, तो ((f-g)(x)) किस पर (0) है?
If (f(x)=\frac{x-2-4}{x+2}) and (g(x)=x-2), where is ((f-g)(x)) equal to (0)?
Explanation opens after your attempt
Correct Answer
A. हर \(x\ne -2\) परFor every \(x\ne -2\)
Concept
(f(x)=x-2), but (x=-2) is excluded, so the difference is (0) for all \(x\ne -2\). Domain restriction is part of the answer.
Why this answer is correct
The correct answer is A. हर \(x\ne -2\) पर / For every \(x\ne -2\). (f(x)=x-2), but (x=-2) is excluded, so the difference is (0) for all \(x\ne -2\). Domain restriction is part of the answer.
Exam Tip
(f(x)=x-2) पर (x=-2) हटता है, इसलिए अंतर (0) सभी \(x\ne -2\) पर है। प्रांत प्रतिबंध उत्तर का हिस्सा है।
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