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A student assumes that \(\sqrt{2}=\frac{p}{q}\), where \(p\) and \(q\) are integers and \(q\ne0\), and concludes from \(p^2=2q^2\) that both \(p\) and \(q\) are even. If the student did not assume \(p\) and \(q\) to be coprime, why is this conclusion not automatically a contradiction?