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Class 9HistoryThe French RevolutionThe Abolition of SlaveryHardLevel 14
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Why did the question of slavery in the French Revolution become colonial rather than limited to Europe?

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Answer and explanation

Correct answer: Because the plantation economy of French colonies was based on slave labour

Slavery was linked with French Caribbean colonies and plantations. Exam tip: write both France and colonies as levels.

Related tags

Colonial SlaveryPlantation EconomyFrench Colonies

Frequently asked questions

What is the correct answer to this question?

Because the plantation economy of French colonies was based on slave labour

Why is this the correct answer?

Slavery was linked with French Caribbean colonies and plantations. Exam tip: write both France and colonies as levels.

Which subject and chapter does this question cover?

This is a Class 9 History question. Chapter: The French Revolution. Topic: The Abolition of Slavery.

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10 more MCQs
  1. 1Slavery in French colonies is linked with which subtopic?
  2. 2How was the shortage of labour met in French Caribbean colonies?
  3. 3Where were slaves mainly made to work in French colonies?
  4. 4Which oceanic trade was called triangular slave trade?
  5. 5In triangular slave trade who were taken from Africa to the Americas?
  6. 6Which French ports were linked with slave trade?
  7. 7From whom were slaves usually bought in Africa?
  8. 8What was done to slaves before sending them on ships?
  9. 9How were slaves kept during the Atlantic crossing?
  10. 10About how long did the slaves' Atlantic journey last?
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