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If \(f:\mathbb{R}\to\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\), where \(f(x)=\tan^{-1}x\), what is the correct conclusion?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: (f) is one-one and onto

Step 1: \(\tan^{-1}x\) is strictly increasing, so it is one-one. Step 2: Its range is \(\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\), equal to the codomain. Step 3: Choosing the exact range as codomain often makes a function onto.

Related tags

Inverse TangentBijective FunctionOnto FunctionReflexive RelationRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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