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Class 12MathematicsRelations and FunctionsFunctionsExpert
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If (g\circ f) is one-one, which conclusion is always correct?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: (f) is one-one

Step 1: If (f(a)=f(b)), then (g(f(a))=g(f(b))). Step 2: Since (g\circ f) is one-one, this forces (a=b). Step 3: Therefore (f) must be one-one, but (g) need not always be one-one.

Related tags

FunctionsCompositionOne-OneTheoryRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq
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