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Which statement is correct for (f:(0,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}), (f(x)=\ln x)?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: It is bijective

Step 1: (\ln x) is strictly increasing on ((0,\infty)), so it is one-one. Step 2: For every real (y), (x=e^y>0), so it is onto. Step 3: The logarithmic function is the inverse of the exponential function.

Related tags

FunctionsLogarithmBijectionInverseRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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