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If (f:A\to B) is a bijective function, then (f^{-1}) is a function from which set to which set?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: From (B) to (A)

Step 1: A bijective function has a well-defined inverse. Step 2: If the original function maps from (A) to (B), the inverse reverses the direction. Step 3: Therefore (f^{-1}) maps from (B) to (A).

Related tags

Bijective FunctionInverse FunctionDomain CodomainFunctionsRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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