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On all real numbers, (aRb) if and only if (a-b) is irrational. Why is this not an equivalence relation?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: Because it is not reflexive

Step 1: Reflexivity requires (aRa) for every (a). Step 2: (a-a=0), and (0) is rational, not irrational. Step 3: Hence no element is related to itself, so this is not an equivalence relation.

Related tags

Irrational DifferenceReflexivity FailureReal NumbersNot EquivalenceEquivalence RelationRelations And FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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