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For a real number \(x\), in which interval does the principal value of \(\tan^{-1}x\) lie?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: \(\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\)

The principal value of \(\tan^{-1}x\) is always chosen from \(\left(-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\). In this interval, \(\tan\theta\) is one-to-one, so every real \(x\) corresponds to exactly one angle. Option C is incorrect because \(\tan\theta\) is undefined at \(\theta=\pm\frac{\pi}{2}\). Exam tip: the endpoint angles are never included in the principal-value range of \(\tan^{-1}x\).

Related tags

Inverse Trigonometric FunctionsPrincipal Value BranchArctangentClass 12 MathematicsTrigonometric FunctionsMathematicsClass 12 Mcq

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