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The profits for the last three years are ₹30,000, ₹35,000 and ₹40,000, respectively. Goodwill is valued at two years’ purchase of the average profit. If C’s share is \(\frac{1}{4}\), what is the value of C’s share in goodwill?

Answer and explanation

Correct answer: ₹17,500

Average profit = (₹30,000 + ₹35,000 + ₹40,000) ÷ 3 = ₹35,000. Goodwill at two years’ purchase = ₹35,000 × 2 = ₹70,000. Therefore, C’s share = ₹70,000 × \(\frac{1}{4}\) = ₹17,500, so option B is correct. The key exam step is to calculate goodwill first and then apply the partner’s share; ₹15,000 would result from using an incorrect goodwill amount.

Related tags

GoodwillAverage-ProfitYears-PurchaseRetirement-AccountingGoodwill SettlementReconstitution Retirement Or Death Of A PartnerAccountancyClass 12 Mcq

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